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I'm sorry to ask this again, but I am about to publish a report using
consensus analysis and it would be very helpful to know whether to be
concerned about only 34% of the total variance being explained, despite
a high ratio of eigenvalue 1 to eigenvalue 2 and relatively good
loadings of 40 out of 41 participants on factor 1.
Most of the articles I have read do not talk about the percent variance
explained. Is this because it doesn't matter, because it is assumed to
be relatively high, or for some other reason?
I would appreciate any insight.
Executive and Personal Coaching and Psychotherapy
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